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Does anybody know when and how linguistic negation was manifested in proto-language (anyone, for example, proto-indo-european)?

What is meant by "linguistic negation" is these patterns of language that include negative references, i.e "not this", "not that".

References would be great as well. Thanks.

Update

The post by @TKR on Diachronic sources of negators approaches the spirit of the question, but it is not what is asked here. The question is about initial manifestation (and historical evolution) of negation in language (part of a greater study of negation, including linguistics)

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Nikos M.
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    There's no general answer to this question. Proto-languages are just languages like any others, so each one will do things differently. – TKR Sep 16 '15 at 21:42
  • @TKR, ok, any research on how negation was (historicaly) formed in language, it doesnt matter if it is about a specific family of languages, rather than full generality. What i'm interested in, isthe process of negation formation in linguistics, even in a subset of languages – Nikos M. Sep 16 '15 at 22:17
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    http://www.utexas.edu/cola/centers/lrc/books/pies04.html scroll down to 4.3.3 Sentence Negation – Alex B. Sep 17 '15 at 01:18
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    Protolanguages are not real languages that exist and can be studied; they're reconstructed formulas that chart the best possible guesses for some parts of a protolanguage's vocabulary, morphology, and phonology, with many many rules for going from the protolanguage to various attested languages. But as far as we know, negation is present in every human language ever encountered. See here for more on the subject. – jlawler Sep 17 '15 at 01:24
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    Related: http://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/2565/jespersens-cycle-why-is-it-defined-cycle The referenced documents there also may aid answering the question. – Be Brave Be Like Ukraine Sep 17 '15 at 13:58
  • @bytebuster, thanks, will check references, already aware of Jespersen's Cycle, trying to go beyond that (or rather before that) – Nikos M. Sep 17 '15 at 17:34
  • @jlawler, correct, but since i'm interested in the historical evolution, it seemed more accurate to form the question this way, about proto-language(s) – Nikos M. Sep 17 '15 at 17:36
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    See http://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/6571/diachronic-sources-of-negators – TKR Sep 17 '15 at 17:38
  • @TKR, added a couple more examples in that answer – Nikos M. Sep 17 '15 at 17:49
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    You're still not going to get a general answer about the "initial manifestation" of negation (or anything else) in language. No one knows how long ago the first human language(s) was/were spoken, but it was certainly tens of thousands of years before Proto-Indo-European or any other language we know anything about. PIE is no more "initial" than any other language. – TKR Sep 19 '15 at 20:15
  • @TKR, ok i gave it a try if anything on that matter was known, thanks – Nikos M. Sep 20 '15 at 16:03

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