many languages have articles (words translating as "a" and "the"); at the same time many languages lack articles. are there any known cases of a language having articles but losing them through language change?
Asked
Active
Viewed 73 times
4
-
1a question about this site; if someone suggests a question that covers the same ground as mine but my question is more general; what should I do? am still figuring out parts of this site – noah johnson Nov 22 '22 at 19:12
-
Essentially: Do nothing right now, let the site's self-moderation or a moderator decide it and accept the result of that decision. — BTW, I don't think that your question is really more general, as one example is sufficient to answer it. The linked question provides this example with a thorough discussion. – Sir Cornflakes Nov 23 '22 at 09:39
-
When you are interested in other examples, you can ask a new question (do not change this one!) along the lines: Are there other examples than Eastern Aramaic for the loss of a definite article in language evolution? And explicitly cite that question on Eastern Aramaic in the body of this new question. – Sir Cornflakes Nov 23 '22 at 09:43
-
Gottcha; I will do exactly that – noah johnson Nov 23 '22 at 17:16