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Italian is commonly cited as an example of a phonetically spelled language. It is easy to guess how an Italian word is pronounced based on the way it is written, because each written symbol highly corresponds to a sound (with some exceptions). This is not the case with English and French, for example. Series of sound changes (for example, the Great Vowel Shift) caused changes in pronunciations and the written form didn't catch up.

Why didn't the same thing happen to Italian? It is an old language, and the Latin alphabet has been used since before the language existed. Did sound changes not happen? Or did they happen but the written form caught up? Or are the changes so systematic that the letter-sound correspondence still holds?

Louis Rhys
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  • Also I don't know much about Italian but for most languages with phonetic spelling like German and Dutch there are periodic spelling reforms to adapt the spelling to the changing sound of the language. Another thing to keep in mind that written languages are standardized. Most people will keep on speaking their dialect or variety but writing must be done in the standard. – hippietrail Oct 01 '11 at 20:01
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    That's not true about French, or so I've been told. French is mostly phonetically spelled but has much more complicated rules for its spelling than say Italian or Spanish or German. For me French spelling is difficult but I'm told for literate native speakers it's straightforward to spell an unknown word from its sound or pronounce a word from its spelling. – hippietrail Oct 01 '11 at 20:59
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    It depends what you mean by phonetic. Sound changes without spelling changes don't necessarily make the consistency any less. A vowel change doesn't introduce inconsistency if there is no conflation. The inconsistencies arise in two cases: 1) conflation of two sounds; 2) lexical differences – James Tauber Oct 01 '11 at 21:15
  • ...complex (but consistent) rules are another matter. To @hippietrail's point, French is more a case of complex rules rather than inconsistent ones. – James Tauber Oct 01 '11 at 21:23
  • We don't have reforms concerning Italian, as far as I know. At least, not big like the ß/ss for German... (Although I've received constradicting info about that.) – Alenanno Oct 01 '11 at 21:48
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    Also, I assume you're referring to standard Italian? There are many varied dialects of Italian but the standard was originally a Florentine dialect. You may find that your assessment doesn't hold as well for other dialects, some of which people argue are different enough to call languages in their own right. – LaurenG Oct 01 '11 at 23:09
  • No language is "older" than any other (with some caveats when we talk about creoles and sign languages), so I'd suggest changing the title of this question. "Why is Italian a phonetically spelled language?" would do, or if you want to keep the reference to age, "Why is Italian still phonetically spelled despite its long written tradition?" – Aaron Oct 02 '11 at 01:25
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    @LaurenG If he says "Italian" he can't be referring to dialects that have a different name. So there's no confusion. :) – Alenanno Oct 02 '11 at 09:16
  • @Alenanno: Well there can still be confusion because "Italian" could refer narrowly to Standard Italian alone or broadly to Italian as spoken colloquially encompassing some set of variation, dialects, etc. – hippietrail Oct 02 '11 at 14:10
  • @hippietrail Those are accents, but if you say Italian you still mean one language, whether one is from Rome, Milan or another city. Regardless of the city, if I ask someone "speak Italian, please" he will always have his accent, but he will be speaking Italian anyway. – Alenanno Oct 02 '11 at 14:38
  • @Alenanno: Linguists often avoid terms like "accent" and "dialect" which have social and political factors and opt for the more neutral linguistics term "variety". Friends I travelled with recently were happy to teach me things they say in both Bergamo and normal Italian but I have no idea whether you would think of them as part of a separate language, a dialect, or an accent. Anyway this is one of the reasons for having a standard language, something English lacks. – hippietrail Oct 02 '11 at 18:06
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    @hippietrail I do not think that the intension of the German spelling reform was not to make the the spelling more phonetic, despite many Germans hoped it would have been. – bernd_k Oct 10 '11 at 17:52
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    I'm also amazed that spanish is such a perfectly phonetic language even though unlike italian, spanish has been the "national" language for ages plus it has also spread so far! I Guess spanish and italian are the special "daughters" of latin and the Latin alphabet is just made for them :) –  Aug 19 '13 at 06:59
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    Spanish is not "perfectly" phonetic. I'm an average second language speaker at best and I see spelling mistakes in less educated Spanish speaking regions all the time. "y" and "ll" can be switched. "b" and "v" can be switched, which is a bit odd. "c", "s", and "z" get mixed up. "h" is sometimes dropped or added where it's not needed. And I guess it's worse in places that drop "s" and other sounds frequently. – hippietrail Aug 19 '13 at 09:23
  • Spanish "b" and "v" merged into "b" in late 16th century (Conquistadors themselves erred on this). Very few dialects retain the distinction between "y" (as in English j in "John") and "ll" (as in French "Chantilly"). Latin American variants have dropped the distinction between c/z (as th in "thin") and "s". "H" has been silent for eons. All these fossils are still kept for purely etymological reasons, so you have to memorize how to write a word. And yes, spelling is worse in most of the Caribbean (except Cuba) where they drop the final "s" of words in speech :) – Joe Pineda Dec 20 '13 at 21:48
  • Deriving French pronunciation from its spelling is almost perfectly deterministic. The other way around is futile for it's a many-to-one mapping. You could write baucout, beaucous, bokoup, etc. and they'd all sound /boku/, yet the official way is "beaucoup" :( – Joe Pineda Dec 20 '13 at 21:52
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    @JoePineda While less irregular than English, French is far from being perfectly deterministic. There is for example no rule that help to figure out how to pronounce "ville" and "quille", "fils" (wires) and "fils" (sons), "outil" and "péril", "gageure" and "majeure", "charisme" and "charette", "magnat" and "magnétique", "paris" and "iris", "dix", "phoenix" and "perdrix", "femme" and "gemme", "monsieur" and "monseigneur", "faisant" and "taisant", "oignon" and "moignon", "août" and "raout","croc" and "troc", not to mention the convoluted rules about mandatory, optional and forbidden liaisons. – jlliagre Sep 08 '15 at 20:18

2 Answers2

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Italian was adopted as an everyday written language long after French and English were. In medieval central Italy, literacy meant the ability to read and write Latin (and perhaps Greek if one was really learned)—that is, until influential writers like Dante and Petrarca wrote in a somewhat artificial version of il dialetto fiorentino and made it prestigious. Use of this vernacular was further bolstered by the regional political influence that Tuscany enjoyed from the early Renaissance on, but it wasn't (at least not in the modern sense) a national language until 1861. By then the written form of the language was fairly stable. I think there was a final orthographic reform in the early 20th century.

In fact, modern Italian spelling isn't all that "phonetic" when it comes to avoiding ambiguity. In many words it fails to note tonic stress or to disambiguate certain letters, such as: open and closed o and e, voiced and voiceless s and z (including zz), the combination gli, which normally represents a palatal lateral but in a few cases is [gli], the digraph gn, which is usually a palatal nasal, but very occasionally is [gn], and semi-consonantal and vocalic i and u. While figuring out the written form of an unfamiliar spoken French word can be difficult, the spelling is normally consistent enough (much more so than in English) to enable correct pronunciation of an unfamiliar written word.

Furthermore, French and Italian are at opposite ends of the Romance Family when it comes to diachronic change or innovation. Old French developed a relatively fixed orthography early on. At that point the writing closely reflected actual pronunciation, but with rapid expansion and the increasing urbanization of its speakers Old French soon underwent radical pronunciation and syntactic changes (morphing into Middle French) while the writing remained fairly static. Florentine-based Tuscan, on the other hand, is remarkable for its phonological and morphological conservatism, only central Sardinian dialects being closer to Latin in these respects. Native vocabulary hasn't undergone any appreciable phonetic or morphological changes up to the present day, so the spelling, which became fixed relatively late, has remained much closer to spoken Italian than has written French to spoken French. In theory spoken Tuscan could have changed radically soon after the written language became common, as happened with French, but during that period Tuscan didn't become the popular language of a vast state or kingdom—the kind of situation that encourages rapid linguistic change. When it finally became an official national language in the latter part of the 19th century it was imposed on the population as a language of bureaucracy and remained such until extremely recently. Modern Italian is no longer pure Tuscan but is increasingly mixed with Southern dialects and is in the process of absorbing a huge amount of foreign vocabulary for which it lacks native equivalents. These foreign words—more often than not from English—create an ever-increasing number of "non-phonetic" spellings.

Ty'reese Tranh
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Some of the difficulty of spelling in English arrises from the fact that we borrowed so many words from other languages (often changing their pronunciation to fit English phonological explanations but keeping their spelling to preserve their etymology) and because our highly populated vowel system appears to be far less stable than the 5-vowel systems we see in other languages. This probably accounts for much of the belief that many people have that languages like Italian and Spanish are "more phonetic" than English.

Also: English originiated as an amalgamation of several germanic languages before borrowing so heavily from other languages. Yet, it was written down using the Roman alphabet. So, even before all the historical changes, English writing was probably not "as phonetic" as languages which are more like Italian.

Ocumpaugh
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    Also Italian has borrowed many words from other languages, and still it remains more "phonetic" (if we can use this expression) than English. I don't think that's the reason. – Alenanno Oct 06 '11 at 21:07
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    Yes that's part of the origin of the difficulty, but also numerous phonological changes, so that we have preserved a writing system that suited the language 500 years ago. As more phonological changes accrue but we retain the old writing system it's going to become more problematic.

    The Roman alphabet has been adapted to many languages that are far less like Romance languages than English, and yet has provided very shallow, phonemic orthographies that are very easy for native speakers to learn.

    – Gaston Ümlaut Oct 20 '11 at 22:51
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    This answer is interesting and informative about English spelling, and that's no joke. But what about Italian spelling? Why is it so phonemic compared to English spelling? – James Grossmann Jul 14 '12 at 20:50
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    @JamesGrossmann: One reason is that English is the oddity, not the most common case. Across all the literary languages in the world only English is this non-phonetic. Apparently even Tibetan and Korean are much more phonetic than English and spelling in those languages can be tricky for language learners. – hippietrail Aug 19 '13 at 09:28
  • Good point; that English has a insular history where the language (and speakers) changed radically over time. – Joop Eggen Aug 19 '13 at 14:12